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Indications include hypertension buy red viagra uk erectile dysfunction treatment pumps, edematous disorders discount red viagra 200mg line erectile dysfunction medication reviews, hypercalciuria discount 200 mg red viagra amex impotence hypothyroidism, and nephrogenic dia- betes insipidus. Typically used only to counteract more potent diuretics and their potassium-wasting effect. Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors: Interfere with sodium reabsorption and hydrogen secretion in proximal tubules. Development and validation of an acute kidney injury risk index for patients undergoing general surgery. Evaluating renal function: Abnormalities of glomerular function cause the greatest derangements and are used commonly for renal assessment. Creatinine is generally reliable indices of glomerular filtration rate but may become inaccurate in the setting of critical illness. Urinalysis: pH, specific gravity, glucose, bilirubin content, and urinary sediment can help detect certain renal dysfunction. Ketamine: No significant effect Benzodiazepines: Diazepam and midazolam should be administered cautiously in the presence of renal impairment because of accumulation of active metabolites. Opioids: The accumulation of morphine (morphine-6-glucuronide) and meperidine (normeperidine) metab- olites may prolong respiratory depression in the presence of renal failure, and normeperidine may cause seizures. Anticholinergic agents: The central nervous system effects of scopolamine can be enhanced by the physi- ologic alterations of renal insufficiency. Succinylcholine: Used safely in kidney failure if serum potassium concentration is less than 5 mEq/L Cisatracurium: Degraded by Hoffman elimination; therefore, a very beneficial nondepolarizing agent in patients with kidney failure Vecuronium and rocuronium: Primarily hepatic but up to 20% eliminated in urine Pancuronium, pipecuronium, doxacurium: Primary dependent on renal elimination. Neuromuscular function needs to be closely monitored in the setting of renal dysfunction. The uncorrected manifestations of this syndrome are collectively referred to as uremia. Manifestations of uremia: Peripheral neuropathy, autonomic neuropathy, encephalopathy, congestive heart failure, hypertension, pericarditis, arrhythmia, conduction blocks, atherosclerosis, interstitial edema, alveo- lar edema, pleural effusion, anorexia, nausea, delayed gastric emptying, metabolic acidosis, hyperkalemia, hyponatremia, hypermagnesemia, hypocalcemia, hyperuricemia, hypoalbunemia, anemia, platelet dysfunc- tion, leukocyte dysfunction, glucose intolerance, secondary hyperparathyroidism, hypertriglyceridemia, osteodystrophy, periarticular calcification, hyperpigmentation, ecchymosis and pruritus Perioperative concerns: All potential reversible manifestations of uremia should be addressed. Preoperative dialysis on the day of surgery is usually optimal but will produce a relative hypovolemia. Electrocardiograms should be carefully examined for signs of hyperkalemia or hypocalcemia. Preoperative arterial blood gas analysis and laboratory values are often helpful to optimize patient safety. Induction and maintenance in addition to fluid therapy need to be individualized to each patient. For patients with moderate renal impairment, maintenance of adequate renal perfusion is paramount. Review medications and patient-administered substances and stop any potential nephrotoxins. Search for and treat acute complications (hyperkalemia, hyponatremia, acidosis, hyperphosphatemia, pul- monary edema). Provide expert supportive care (management of catheter and skin care; pressure sore and deep venous throm- boembolic prophylaxis; psychological support). Possible procedures include bladder biopsy, retrograde pyelography, resection of bladder tumor, extraction or laser lithotripsy, and ureteral stent placement. Avoid sores, compartment syndrome, and neuropathy with careful positioning and padding. Associated nerve injuries: Common peroneal nerve injury (loss of dorsiflexion) from lateral knee resting on strap supports. Be mindful of O saturation with obese, elderly, marginal 2 pulmonary reserve patients with lithotomy or Trendelenburg positioning. Open procedures for kidney stones and nephrectomies are in the “kidney rest position” in which the patient is lateral with the dependent leg flexed and the other extended. Ventilation/perfusion mismatch: Dependent lung receives greater blood flow, but nondependent lung receives greater ventilation. This leads to shunt-induced hypoxemia in the dependent lung and increased dead space ventilation in the nondependent lung. Possible surgical complications include pneumothorax caused by accidental surgical entry into the pleural space. Cardiovascular: Decreased venous return secondary to inferior vena cava compression from the kidney rest occurs. Preoperative type and screen usually adequate, but crossmatched blood is needed for anemic patients and those needing large resection. Blood loss is difficult to assess because of irrigation but is typically 200 to 300 mL. Suspect bladder perforation if the patient has sudden, unexplained hypotension or hypertension with acute bradycardia. Clinical signs: Headache, restlessness, confusion, arrhythmia, hypotension, cyanosis, dyspnea, and seizure. Pulmonary congestion or pulmonary edema can occur if large amounts of irrigation fluid are absorbed, especially if cardiac reserve is limited. These are hypo- tonic nonelectrolyte solutions, which can lead to water absorption. Acute hyponatremia and hypoosmolality may occur, leading to neurological manifestations. Hypotonicity causing intravascular hemolysis can also result from use of these solutions. Modern lithotripters generate shock waves electromagnetically or from piezoelectric crystals. Ureteral stents are placed before the procedure to allow for passage of large stone particles. Contraindications: Bleeding diathesis, pregnancy, obstruction below stone, and inability to have lung and intestine out of sound wave focus. Preoperative management: There is arrhythmia risk if patient has a pacemaker or implantable cardioverter- defibrillator or has a history of arrhythmias. The shock waves can also damage these devices; thus, the device manufacturer should be contacted for best man- agement plan. Epidural anesthesia for water bath lithotripsy to T6 level provides adequate coverage. Intraoperative management: The donor kidney is placed retroperitoneally in the iliac fossa. Cisatracurium and rocuronium are preferred muscle relaxants because they do not depend on renal excre- tion. Furosemide or additional mannitol may be needed if oliguric after arterial anastomosis. Monitor for hyperkalemia after release of vascular clamp after arterial anastomosis completion caused by potassium in preservative solution. Donor kidney washout with ice-cold lactated Ringer solution may prevent hyperkalemia. Surgeries include laparoscopic, radical retropubic prostatectomy, salvage prostatectomy, or bilateral orchiectomy. Radical retropubic prostatectomy: Characteristics include a lower midline abdominal incision, likely pelvic lymph node dissection, and possible indigo carmine use for ureter visualization.
Implementation and adoption of nationwide electronic health records in secondary care in England: Final qualitative results from prospective national evaluation in “early adopter” hospitals cheap red viagra 200 mg overnight delivery impotence with condoms. Automated collection of quality of life data: A comparison of paper and touch screen questionnaires discount 200mg red viagra overnight delivery erectile dysfunction causes n treatment. Evaluating health-related quality of life: Cost comparison of computerized touch- screen technology and traditional paper systems discount red viagra online mastercard erectile dysfunction drug types. Impact of patient-reported outcome measures on routine practice: A structured review. Adolescent sexual behavior, drug use, and violence: Increased reporting with computer survey technology. Paper versus web-based administration of the pelvic floor distress inventory-20 and pelvic floor impact questionnaire-7. Computer interviewing in urogynaecology: Concept, development and psychometric testing of an electronic pelvic floor assessment questionnaire in primary and secondary care. Understanding women’s experiences of electronic interviewing during the clinical episode in urogynaecology: A qualitative study. Predictors of eHealth usage: Insights on the digital divide from the Health Information National Trends Survey 2012. Finally, the postoperative QoL and patient’s satisfaction with prolapse surgery are not correlated with a postoperative anatomical success alone but improve significantly only if the symptoms disappear and/or improve . The only valid way of measuring the severity of symptoms and their impact on QoL is through the use of psychometrically robust self-completed questionnaires [10,17–21]. It has also been suggested that QoL should be considered as an end point in all clinical trials . To better identify those women Physical Higher scores: poor QoL needing treatment limitations 4. Despite the strengths of these two complementary questionnaires, their comprehensive nature and relative length (23 minutes to be completed) may be inefficient and impractical in the clinical practice. Therefore, the same authors developed and validated the shorter versions 4 years later . They have a 3-month recall period of symptom, thus being helpful instruments to use particularly when evaluating the outcomes of conservative therapy that may require some time to show any clinical benefit [17,18]. To date, these questionnaires have been translated into Korean, Spanish, Greek, Danish, Turkish, Swedish, and French [28–36]. Prolapse Quality of Life The prolapse QoL (P-QoL) questionnaire was developed in 2004 by Digesu et al. P-QoL contains 20 questions divided into nine domains: general health (1 item), prolapse impact (1 item), role limitations (2 items), physical limitations (2 items), social limitations (3 items), personal relationships (2 items), emotional limitations (3 items), sleep/energy disturbance (2 items), and severity measurement (4 items). The answers are categorized using a four-point Likert scale: “none/not at all,” “slightly/a little,” “moderately,” and “a lot. In addition to the QoL items, the P-QoL also includes 18 symptom questions: 11 urogenital (bladder, sexual) and 7 bowel. The responses for those 18 questions are categorized using a five-point Likert scale: the same four options used for QoL items plus a “not applicable” option if the women do not have the symptom. The P-QoL has been shown to be a valid, reliable self-completed questionnaire that is easy to understand and to complete. To date, the P-QoL has been cross-culturally translated and validated into several languages including English, Italian, Dutch, Thai, Slovakian, Portuguese, German, Turkish, Persian, Japanese, Spanish, and French and used in clinical as well as research practice. This is a symptom-specific Likert scale questionnaire that included 65 questions that were assembled from commonly used validated instruments. A Likert scale is used both to quantify the severity (none, 0; minimally, 1; moderately, 2; severely, 3), the duration of symptoms (never, 0; <25% of time, 1; <50% of time, 2; <75% of time, 3; 100% of time, 4), and the impact on QoL. The psychometric properties (validity and reliability) of this questionnaire have never been tested. It is a symptom-bother questionnaire that contains 34 questions divided into four domains: (1) mechanical symptoms, (2) lower urinary tract symptoms, (3) bowel symptoms, and (4) sexual symptoms. The severity of each symptom is graded according to frequency (1, never or less than once/month; 2, less than once/week; 3, once or more/week; 4. An additional four-point bother score was included to assess how each symptom affected QoL. The psychometric properties (validity and reliability) of this questionnaire have never been tested. The scores range from 0 to 53 (vaginal symptom score), 0 to 58 (sexual matter score), and 0 to 10 (QoL score). A high score indicates greater impairment/poor QoL, while a low score indicates a good QoL. Australian Pelvic Floor Questionnaire The Australian Pelvic Floor Questionnaire can be used as a self- and/or interviewer-completed questionnaire. Both versions have been proved to be simple, easy to complete, valid, reliable, and sensitive to change [21,47]. They can be used in both clinical and research practice to evaluate all pelvic floor symptoms such as bladder, bowel, and sexual function, prolapse symptoms, symptom severity, impact on QoL, and symptoms bother. The self-completed version is preferred when evaluating the treatment outcome independently of health-care providers. The questions are grouped in four domains: bladder function (15 items), bowel function (12 items), prolapse symptoms (5 items), and sexual function (10 items). A four-point scoring system is used to assess the frequency, severity, and 262 bothersomeness of pelvic floor symptoms for the majority of the items. Frequency of defecation, bowel consistency, lubrication, and sexual abstinence are excluded from the score. The maximum total pelvic floor dysfunction score is 40 or 30 if a woman is not sexually active. It is divided into four domains: (1) lump and pain, (2) bladder function, (3) bowel function, and (4) sexual function. It provides scores on six domains of sexual function (desire, arousal, lubrication, orgasm, satisfaction, and pain) as well as a total score. All items score between 0 and 3 (0 indicating best and 3 indicating worst health status). These domain scores are calculated, by dividing the sum of all items in the domain by the total possible item score and multiplying this by 100, to produce a scale 0–100. The “bothersomeness” of a symptom is scored using a four-point scale (0, not a problem; 1, a bit of a problem; 2, quite a problem; and 3, a serious problem). Internal reliability, levels of missing data, secondary factor analysis, floor and ceiling effects, descriptive statistics, item-to-total correlation scores, item discriminant, and convergent validity were measured. All 19 domains were internally reliable with Cronbach’s alpha scores ranging from 0. The advantages of this computerized instrument are the reduction of missing data and the high 263 satisfaction ratings, probably due to the greater privacy setting. It has been recently adapted by urogynecologists as an easy method to use in the routine clinical practice to assess the severity of pelvic floor disorders, degree of bother, and the treatment outcome and satisfaction.
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Fine-needle aspiration cytology: a reliable tool in the diagnosis of salivary gland lesions red viagra 200 mg amex cheap erectile dysfunction pills uk. Cytohistology of Lymph Nodes and Spleen buy 200mg red viagra erectile dysfunction pills with no side effects, Cambridge University Press order red viagra 200 mg online erectile dysfunction medications drugs, Cambridge, United Kingdom, 2014. Wojcik General Background Malignant salivary gland tumors include a diverse group of primary neoplasms involving both the major and minor salivary glands [1–4]. Al-Abbadi Pathology and Cytopathology, Jordan University Hospital, Amman, Jordan Histopathology, Microbiology and Forensic Medicine, University of Jordan – College of Medicine, Amman, Jordan e-mail: alabbadima@yahoo. Vielh Department of Anatomic and Molecular Pathology, National Laboratory of Health, Dudelange, Luxembourg e-mail: philippe. Defnition Salivary gland aspirates classifed as “Malignant” contain a combination of cyto- morphologic features that, either alone or in combination with ancillary studies, is diagnostic of malignancy. When possible, an attempt should be made to provide the grade of the neoplasm as well as the specifc tumor type (e. In the pediatric age group, it constitutes about a third of salivary gland carcinomas [7, 8]. The tumors are usually asymptomatic and slow-growing; pain, fxation to the surrounding tissues, and facial nerve involvement are considered poor prognostic features and may indicate high grade transformation. Distant metastases are rare; however, they have been reported in the liver and lung. Cellular smear with loosely cohesive groups of fragile acinar cells adherent to a delicate capillary meshwork. Note the presence of stripped nuclei in the focculent background and the conspicuous absence of ductal cells (smear, Romanowsky stain) Fig. Dyshesive well-preserved tumor cells with delicate granular cytoplasm and stripped nuclei. Aspirate showing a sheet of cells with abundant delicate cytoplasm with scattered small coarse granules (smear, Papanicolaou stain) Fig. This acinic cell carcinoma has three-dimensional clusters of acinar cells with abundant delicate cytoplasm; low N:C ratio; uniform, round-to-oval nuclei, with distinct nucleoli (smear, Papanicolaou stain) Capillary meshwork with loosely adherent cells or well-developed papillary formations Uniform, round eccentric nuclei with distinct nucleoli (Fig. The tumor cells are large and polygonal to oval with indistinct cell borders, and abun- dant delicate vacuolated cytoplasm, which has a subtle basophilic quality. Cytoplasmic zymogen granules, which are indicative of serous acinar 7 Malignant 101 Fig. This acinic cell carcinoma has loosely cohesive groups of cells with a somewhat higher N:C ratio imparting more of a non-specifc glandular appearance (smear, Papanicolaou stain) differentiation, are usually coarse, stain basophilic in Papanicolaou-stained prepara- tions, but are best seen in Romanowsky-type stains where they appear red or magenta. Unfortunately, zymogen granules are often sparse and/or diffcult to detect on routinely stained cytologic preparations. In addition to serous acinar cells, aspi- rates can also show clear cells, intercalated duct-like cells, and non-specifc glandu- lar cells. Intercalated duct-like cells are smaller, cuboidal, have a higher N:C ratio with centrally placed nuclei, and lack the classic cytoplasmic zymogen granules. Non-specifc glandular cells are frequently seen; they resemble the intercalated duct-like cells but are larger and rounder (Fig. Numerous naked nuclei may be present in the aspirate and may be diffcult to distinguish from lym- phocytes. The tumor is found most commonly in the parotid gland, followed by the intraoral minor salivary glands and submandibular gland. Most tumors occur in adults and show an equal gender distribution; the mean age is 47 years (range 14–78 years) . Cells have low-grade vesicu- lar nuclei with fnely granular chromatin and distinctive centrally located nucleoli (Fig. Moderate to abundant pale to pink vacuolated or granular cytoplasm is present (Fig. These aspirates (a–c) show different architectural patterns of microcystic, tubular, microfollicular, and solid sheets of glandular cells with eosinophilic colloid-like secretory material (smear, Papanicolaou and Romanowsky stains) Fig. This aspirate of secretory carcinoma consists of cells with low-grade vesicular nuclei with fnely granular chromatin and distinct nucleoli (smear, Papanicolaou stain) 7 Malignant 105 Fig. The aspirate shows a biphasic tumor with inner cuboidal ductal cells and prominent outer myoepithelial cells (smear, Papanicolaou stain) 7 Malignant 107 Fig. Aspirate of epithelial- myoepithelial carcinoma showing biphasic cells organized in pseudopapillary tubules and sheets (smear, Papanicoloau stain) Fig. This aspirate of epithelial- myoepithelial carcinoma has a prominent biphasic pattern of ductal cells and abundant pale myoepithelial cells as well as focal proteinaceous material (smear, Papanicolaou stain) Laminated, acellular stromal cores (Fig. This epithelial-myoepithelial carcinoma has prominent concentrically laminated proteinaceous secretions that should be distinguished from the matrix material of adenoid cystic carcinoma (smear, Papanicolaou stain) ductal component is sometimes more diffcult to identify. Concentrically laminated acellular stromal spheres stain pink with Diff-Quik and blue-green with Papanicolaou stains. Material should be collected for ancillary studies to highlight the biphasic nature of the tumor. Tumors are usually large and have an infltra- tive growth pattern with foci of necrosis. Regional or distant metastases may already be present at the time of diagnosis, contributing to the poor prognosis of this tumor. The standard management for resectable tumors is radical surgery with ipsilateral neck dissection, followed by postoperative adjuvant radiotherapy. The aspirate is cellular with three-dimensional groups of epithelial cells with moderate amounts of cytoplasm and hyperchromatic nuclei in a background of blood and necrosis (smear, Romanowsky stain) 110 S. This aspirate of salivary duct carcinoma contains groups of high-grade malignant cells with abundant cytoplasm, nuclear pleomorphism, prominent nucleoli, and glandular features (smear, Romanowsky stain) Fig. Immunohistochemistry can be very helpful for addressing the differential diagnostic considerations. Metastatic carcinoma from breast or prostate can sometimes enter the differential diagnosis, particularly in a patient with a known history of these cancers. Clinical correlation and interpretation of the cytologic fndings in the appropriate clinical context is essential for the diagnosis of high-grade primary and secondary salivary gland cancers . A focused panel of immunochemical markers can usually resolve any diffcult cases where the cytomorphology is not defnitive (Table 7. There is a known predilection for Inuits in the Arctic region and Southern China and Japan. Patients usually present with an enlarging mass of the parotid or submandibular gland with associated cervical lymphadenopathy. Tumors usually range in size from 1–10 cm and often infltrate the surrounding parenchyma. It is cytologically and histologically similar in appearance to nasopharyngeal carci- noma. The cytomorphol- ogy is fairly unique, and essentially the same as nonkeratinizing nasopharyngeal carcinoma. The presence of a polymorphous lymphoid background and pleomor- phic cells with vesicular nuclei and prominent nucleoli can raise a differential diag- nosis of a high-grade lymphoproliferative lesion, especially Hodgkin lymphoma. Cell block of lymphoepithelial carcinoma showing undifferentiated-appearing epithelial cells in a lymphoid background (H&E stain) 114 S. Carcinoma with High-Grade Transformation “Dedifferentiation,” or the more widely accepted term “high-grade transformation,” is defned as the transformation of a well-differentiated tumor into a high-grade malignancy that lacks the distinct histologic characteristics of the original neoplasm [9, 13, 14].
Recent respiratory illness or tobacco smoke exposure predis- poses children to laryngospasm on emergence discount 200 mg red viagra otc erectile dysfunction treatment boston medical group. Laryngospasm can occur in the recovery room as the patient wakes up and chokes on secretions buy red viagra uk can you get erectile dysfunction young age. Recovering pediatric patients should be placed in the lateral position so that oral secretions pool and drain away from the vocal cords buy generic red viagra from india erectile dysfunction journal articles. Although postintubation croup is a complication that occurs later than laryngospasm, it almost always appears within 3 hours after extubation. Patient-controlled analgesia can also be successfully used in patients as young as 6 to 7 years old, depending on their maturity. With a 10-min lockout interval, the recommended interval dose is either morphine 20 mcg/kg or hydromorphone 5 mcg/kg. As with adults, continuous infusions increase the risk of respiratory depression; recommended continuous infusion doses are morphine 0 to 12 mcg/kg/hr or hydromorphone 0 to 3 mcg/kg/hr. Epidural infusions for postoperative analgesia often consist of a local anesthetic combined with an opioid. Infusion rates depend on the size of the patient, the final drug concentration, and the location of the epidural catheter. Pulmonary complications include apnea, hyaline membrane disease, and bronchopulmonary dysplasia. A pat- ent ductus arteriosus can cause shunting, pulmonary edema, and congestive heart failure. Prematurity increases susceptibility to infection, hypothermia, intracranial hemorrhage, and kernicterus. Small, fragile premature neonates demand careful management of airway, temperature, fluids, and glucose. Oxygenation should be monitored con- tinuously with pulse oximetry or transcutaneous O analysis. Opioid-based anesthetics are often favored over volatile anesthetic-based techniques because of the perception that the latter cause myocardial depression. Risk factors for postanesthetic apnea include a low gestational age at birth, anemia, neurologic abnormalities, sepsis, and hypothermia. Infants present with symptoms of bowel obstruction, at times caused by coiling of the duodenum with the ascending colon. Midgut volvulus can rapidly compromise intestinal blood supply, causing infarction, and is a true surgical emergency that most commonly occurs in infancy, with up to one-third in the first week of life. Patients typically present with bilious vom- iting, a distended and tender abdomen, metabolic acidosis, bloody diarrhea, and hemodynamic instability. Anesthetic Considerations Surgery is the only definitive treatment of malrotation and midgut volvulus. Depending on the size of the patient, awake intubation or rapid-sequence induction should be used. Patients with volvulus are often hypovolemic and acidotic and may tolerate anesthesia poorly; either ketamine or an opioid-based anesthetic may be used. Fluid resuscitation including blood products and sodium bicarbonate are often necessary. Bowel edema can complicate abdominal closure and may produce an abdominal compartment syndrome. The latter can impair ventilation, hinder venous return, and produce renal compromise; temporary closure with a “silo” may be necessary. Bilateral pulmonary hypoplasia and malrota- tion of the intestines can be present. Treatment includes stabilization with sedation, paralysis, and moderate hyperventilation via pressure-limited ventilation. Inhaled nitric oxide may be used to lower pulmonary artery pressures but does not appear to improve survival. Low concentrations of volatile agents or opioids are used plus muscle relaxants and air as tolerated. Aggressive 2 attempts at expansion of the ipsilateral lung after surgical decompression can be detrimental. Arterial blood gases should be monitored by a preductal artery if an umbilical artery catheter is not in place. Breathing results in gastric distention, and feeding leads to chok- ing, coughing, and cyanosis (the three Cs). Anesthetic Considerations Preoperative management includes identifying congenital anomalies and preventing aspiration pneumonia by nursing in a head-up position, using an oral-esophageal tube, and avoiding feedings. Surgical treatment is usually postponed until any pneumonia clears or improves with antibiotic therapy. Suctioning of the gastrostomy tube and upper esophageal pouch tube helps prevent aspiration. However, postoperative suctioning of the esophagus may disrupt the surgical repair. Surgical retraction can compress the contralateral lung, great vessels, trachea, heart, and vagus nerve. A drop in O satu- 2 ration may indicate that the retracted lung needs to be reexpanded. Omphaloceles occur at the base of the umbilicus, have a hernia sac, and are often associated with other congenital anomalies such as trisomy 21, diaphragmatic hernia, and cardiac and bladder malformations. In contrast, the gastroschisis defect is usually located lateral to the umbilicus, does not have a hernia sac, and is often an isolated find- ing. Antenatal diagnosis by ultrasonography can be followed by elective cesarean section at 38 weeks and immediate surgical repair. Anesthetic Considerations Prevent hypothermia, infection, and dehydration, which are usually more serious in gastroschisis, because the protective hernial sac is absent. Intubation can be accomplished with the patient awake or asleep and with or without muscle relaxation. A one-stage closure (primary repair) is not always advisable because it can cause an abdominal compartment syndrome. A staged closure with a temporary Silastic silo may be initially necessary followed by a second procedure a few days later for complete closure. Suggested criteria for a staged closure include intragastric or intravesical pressure above 20 cm H O, peak inspiratory pressure above 35 cm H O, or an end-tidal carbon dioxide above 50 mm Hg. The neonate remains intubated after the procedure and is weaned from the ventilator over the next 1 to 2 days in the intensive care unit. Persistent vomiting depletes sodium, potassium, chloride, and hydrogen ions, causing hypochloremic metabolic alkalosis.